Experto Creed

Oneness Mythbusters

John 5:18-42 is a passage I've never heard discussed from an Apostolic pulpit. Reminscing on my experience in UPC Bible Quizzing, I remembered that when we did the book of John twice, we memorized John 4 and John 6; never John 5. When I heard it preached on about a month ago at the Presbyterian church I attend, I instantly knew why this is an unfamiliar passage to me.

John 5

19 So Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the Father[d] does, that the Son does likewise. 20For the Father loves the Son and shows him all that he himself is doing. And greater works than these will he show him, so that you may marvel. 21For as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, so also the Son gives life to whom he will. 22The Father judges no one, but has given all judgment to the Son, 23that all may honor the Son, just as they honor the Father.

26For as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son also to have life in himself. 27And he has given him authority to execute judgment, because he is the Son of Man. 30"I can do nothing on my own. As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is just, because I seek not my own will but the will of him who sent me.

I Corinthians 15:28 is very similar: "When all things are subjected to God, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things in subjection under him, that God may be all in all."

Jesus does what he sees the Father doing? And the Father loves his Son? And the Father doesn't judge - He's delegated that to the Son???

Jesus is saying the Father has given him life and authority? And He says of Himself, "I can do nothing on my own"???

I certainly will be the last to claim I know perfectly what these scriptures are speaking of, but it seems rather plain from a biblical standpoint that the Son and the Father are independent of each other, that the Father gives the Son life and duties, and that the Son seeks to implement the will of His Father (remember Jesus' prayer in the Garden of Gethsemane?). If there is no distinction between the Son and the Father, why is this passage in the Bible? If Jesus=Son=Father, why would Jesus make these comments? How can 1 Corinthians 15:28 be reconciled under this formula?